I'm not "looking for a loophole". I was asking a simple question.Were a person (let's call him 'Andrew') to pay or agree to pay another person (let's call him 'Jeffrey') for the sexual services of a third person who has been induced to provide the service by means of exploitative conduct on the part of 'Jeffrey', the first person would have committed an offence. It would be irrelevant whether he knew (or ought to have known) that the second person was subjecting the third to exploitation. It's a strict liability offence, in other words. The loophole you are looking for is not ignorance but wealth and status, as some people never offer to pay for anything, because they are so used to to the rest of us paying for everything they want.