RecordAceFromNew
Swinging Member
- Location
- West London
Westminster Council has done what Cameron said in the Commons, servied eviction notice on a father whose son was convicted for rioting. The outcome presumably will end up being decided by a judge if the father contests.
I can see justification for evicting a convicted criminal, and it is probably next to impossible to enforce if the family wasn't also evicted.
But should the father/mother/brothers/sisters also be punished (i.e. evicted) for the convict's sin? How do we balance the useful deterrent set by such examples, against the intrinsic problem of punishing the innocents?
I can see justification for evicting a convicted criminal, and it is probably next to impossible to enforce if the family wasn't also evicted.
But should the father/mother/brothers/sisters also be punished (i.e. evicted) for the convict's sin? How do we balance the useful deterrent set by such examples, against the intrinsic problem of punishing the innocents?