col
Legendary Member
Ok,so as not to attract excuses,Its a straight forward question attatched to no particular incident or person.
Is it right or wrong to cause a driver to lose their temper through the actions or words of a cyclist on purpose when the cyclist is no where near or in any danger of the driver,if the cyclist feels the driver is driving badly?
Is it right or wrong to cause a driver to lose their temper through the actions or words of a cyclist on purpose when the cyclist is no where near or in any danger of the driver,if the cyclist feels the driver is driving badly?