I think it states anything attached the bike is to be included in the fair value for the bike but anything else is not and would have a fair value less than if it were included with the cost of the bike.What's unclear about that? If it's fixed to the bike it's allowable - if it isn't then it's not allowable. Simples!
But there is still a fair value to be calculated on them.I read it as those items are excluded from the value of the bike calculation.
This is why I prefer to simply buy the years outgoing model at a huge discount (often around 40%!) for cash and have outright ownership from day 1 without having to jump through hoops and argue the toss with disinterested bureaucrats that are only interested in generating further paperwork to secure their own jobs.
I mean, you can buy a bike from a supplier they approve, for a sum they give consent to, at list price, at a time of year that suits them and repay the advance on their terms or,.....
You can buy the bike you want from a supplier you choose at a price you are happy to pay and at a time that you want it. It's a no brainer really (and I do have easy access to C2W with my employer).
Ownership on the C2W scheme is usually after 1 year of paying for it via salary sacrafice.Why do you want to buy the bikes now?
Is there a zero cost of transfer of ownership after 5 years for example?
Ownership on the C2W scheme is usually after 1 year of paying for it via salary sacrafice.
It depends on the scheme fella. Some will put lots of stipulations, some won't. For example, some will just give you a voucher to buy whatever you and the shop (of your choice on a long list of suppliers) decide.
I know some scheme supporters have a big choice on the supplier but I have yet to hear of a C2W scheme retailer that will supply at less than list price under the C2W scheme. It just puzzles me that people will tie themselves into an unnecessary commitment like C2W when they can get the same financial benefit by shopping around and getting a good deal?