Sara_H
Guru
I was knocked off my bike in a deliberate hit and run six weeks ago. Minor injuries to me (one of which is a dodgy knee that is still giving me problems and having a fairly major impact) and a few hundred pounds worth of damage to my bike, clothes etc.
The driver has been charged and is currently on remand waiting to go to court.
My question is, do insurance companys pay out if the damage was the result of a deliberate criminal act rather than negligence or an accident?
The driver has been charged and is currently on remand waiting to go to court.
My question is, do insurance companys pay out if the damage was the result of a deliberate criminal act rather than negligence or an accident?