well no, that's not the question. Why is it double the "going rate" for some of the UK's most respected bespoke framebuilders' 853 frames? I think we can all understand why it's better than summat from
Halfords.
Is the "better" objective or subjective? In the hands of an ordinary non-professional non-elite non-1st category rider does the more costly equipment actually perform better than the less costly? When I rode LONJOG I was accompanied by someone on a Carrera whilst I was on something 3x the price. He got to JOG without issue, well apart from a very explosive tyre blowout, as did I. Was my riding experience better, was my bike better, and, if so, how would we measure that difference
Is the difference in value difference between high price bikes and lower priced bike intrinsic or extrinsic?
Does a Rolex tell the time better than a Swatch?