Interesting debate here. (Sorry for jumping in, long time lurker, first time poster)
For my own interest how far does the term journey made between home and workplace stretch? I'm new to this cycling malarkey and have signed up to the c2w scheme as a way of accessing a much more shiny steed that I would otherwise have shelled out for to replace the biffer of an old raliegh that I have resurected from the parentals garage.
My prime useage will be that I will effectivley "walk" my bike to work in the morning ( at least 3 out of 5 mornings is the plan) as I walk to work up a foot path repleat with a generous helping of steep and sharp concrete stairs, and I'm not a morning person at the moment so a morning ride just isn't going to happen yet. Come home time I will don my finest cycling tracksuit bottoms and go for a pedal up the local cycle path that the council and sustrans have kindly provided.
So, I don't 'need' a bike to get to work as I live less than half a mile from work and walk anyway. But I'm hoping that having the 'must use for 50% of journeys to work' caveat will actually guilt me into motivating myself for the actual purpose of having a bike, which is for me to accumulate some fit and loose some fat for the other sports that I play. My rides after work will be from work to home, but are more often than not going to include riding an "out and back" that requires cycling very close past my flat, so I'm not really following the spirit of the scheme, or am I? (I told the bloke who administers our scheme this plan and he didn't cast me out of his office in a mist of righteous fury at my haenous defrauding of the public purse.)